^{11 Ref} Now if there was perfection through the Levitical priesthood (for under it hath the people received the law), what further need `was there' that another priest should arise after the order of Melchizedek, and not be reckoned after the order of Aaron?

^{11 Ref} If indeed, then, perfection were through the Levitical priesthood -- for the people under it had received law -- what further need, according to the order of Melchisedek, for another priest to arise, and not to be called according to the order of Aaron?